NEET UG 2013 Biology (Botany + Zoology) Karnataka


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91 The plant body is thalloid in

(1) Funaria

(2) Sphagnum

(3) Salvinia

(4) Marchantia

Answer (1)

92 Which one of the following is true for fungi?

(1) They are phagotrophs

(2) They lack a rigid cell wall

(3) They are heterotrophs

(4) They lack nuclear membrane

Answer (3)

93 Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are
(1) Akinetes(2) Heterocysts

(3) Hormogonia

(4) Nodules

Answer (2)

94 The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their

(1) Genus

(2) Family

(3) Order

(4) Division

Answer (2)

95 What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo?

(1) Independent sporophyte

(2) Presence of archegonia

(3) Well developed vascular tissues

(4) Independent gametophyte

Answer (2)

96 Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

(1) Nostoc-Water blooms

(2) Spirogyra-Motile gametes

(3) Sargassum-Chlorophyll C

(4) Basidiomycetes-PuffballsAnswer (2)

97 Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania, Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia, Indigofera, Mustard, Soybean, Tobacco and groundnut how many plants have corolla with valvate aestivation?

(1) Five

(2) Six

(3) Seven

(4) Eight

Answer (3)

98 How many plants among China rose, Ocimum, sunflower, mustard, Alstonia, guava, Calotropis and Nerium (Oleander) have opposite phyllotaxy?

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) Five

Answer (2)

99 In a cymose inflorescence the main axis

(1) Terminates in a flower

(2) Has unlimited growth

(3) Bears a solitary flower

(4) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers

Answer (1)

100 Which of the following statements is not true for stomatal apparatus?

(1) Inner walls of guard cells are thick

(2) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and mitochondria

(3) Guard cells are always surrounded by subsidiary cells

(4) Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange

Answer (3)

101 Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth of tree trunk is

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem

(3) Lateral meristem

(4) Phellogen

Answer (3)

102 Inflorescence is racemose in

(1) Soyabean

(2) Brinjal

(3) Tulip

(4) Aloe

Answer (1)

103 During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at

(1) Centromere

(2) Kinetochore

(3) Both centromere and kinetochore

(4) Centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoiningcentromere

Answer (2)

104 Uridine, present only in RNA is a

(1) Pyrimidine

(2) Nucleoside

(3) Nucleotide

(4) Purine

Answer (2)

105 The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for

(1) A layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria

(2) A layer present between cell wall and membrane of bacteria

(3) Cell wall of bacteria

(4) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N-glycosylated proteins

Answer (1)

106 Which of the following type of plastids does not contain stored food material?

(1) Amyloplasts

(2) Chromoplasts

(3) Eleioplasts

(4) Aleuroplasts

Answer (2)

107 During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at

(1) Leptotene

(2) Zygotene

(3) Pachytene

(4) Diplotene

Answer (2)

108 Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere?

(1) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and denitrification

(2) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite reduction

(3) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and conversion of dinitrogen to ammoniumcompounds

(4) Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root nodules oflegumes

Answer (1)

109 Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK in development?

(1) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth of tissue (Y)

(2) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)

(3) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue (Y)

(4) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to develop

Answer (4)

110 The viability of seeds is tested by

(1) Safranine

(2) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols

(3) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride

(4) DMSO

Answer (3)

111 The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits throughout the year by application of

(1) IAA, IBA

(2) NAA, 2, 4-D

(3) Phenyl acetic acid

(4) Cytokinin

Answer (2)

112 Which of the following elements is a constituent of biotin?

(1) Sulphur

(2) Magnesium

(3) Calcium

(4) Phosphorus

Answer (1)

113 Bundle sheath cells

(1) Are rich in RuBisCo

(2) Are rich in PEP carboxylase

(3) Lack RuBisCo

(4) Lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase

Answer (1)

114 Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants

(2) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous

(3) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination

(4) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all

Answer (2)

115 Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after

(1) Meiotic division

(2) Mitotic division

(3) Formation of a thick wall

(4) Differentiation

Answer (1)

116 Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in

(1) Fungi

(2) Mosses

(3) Algae

(4) Ferns

Answer (3)

117 Animal vectors are required for pollination in

(1) Maize

(2) Vallisneria

(3) Mulbery

(4) Cucumber

Answer (4)

118 Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids

(2) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes

(3) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials

(4) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and alkalis

Answer (4)

119 Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in

(1) Perisperm

(2) Endosperm

(3) Cotyledons

(4) Hypocotyl

Answer (2)

120 Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as

(1) Mutation

(2) Migration

(3) Natural selection

(4) Genetic drift

Answer (4)

121 Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?

(1) Universal

(2) Non-overlapping

(3) Ambiguous

(4) Degeneracy

Answer (3)

122 Genetic variation in a population arises due to

(1) Mutations only

(2) Recombination only

(3) Mutations as well as recombination

(4) Reproductive isolation and selection

Answer (3)

123 Satellite RNAs are present in some

(1) Plant viruses

(2) Viroids

(3) Prions

(4) Bacteriophages

Answer (1)

124 One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is

(1) AFLP

(2) VNTR

(3) SSCP

(4) SCAR

Answer (2)

125 Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?

(1) Ti plasmid

(2) Adenovirus

(3) Cosmid

(4) Ri plasmid

Answer (2)

126 Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis?

(1) A somatic embryo develops from a somatic cell

(2) The pattern of development of a somatic embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic embryo

(3) Somatic embryos can develop from microspores

(4) Somatic embryo is induced usually by an auxin such as 2, 4-D

Answer (3)

127 Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using

(1) Restriction enzymes

(2) Cloning vectors

(3) DNA probes

(4) Gene targets

Answer (3)

128 During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to

(1) Remove proteins such as histones

(2) Precipitate DNA

(3) Break open the cell to release DNA

(4) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes

Answer (2)

129 RNA interference involves

(1) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

(2) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase

(3) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA

(4) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA

Answer (3)

130 Benthic organisms are affected most by

(1) Water-holding capacity of soil

(2) Light reaching the forest floor

(3) Surface turbulence of water

(4) Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems

Answer (4)

131 Which of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

(1) Rice

(2) Mango

(3) Wheat

(4) Groundnut

Answer (1)

132 Which organization publishes the Red Data Book?

(1) GEF

(2) IUCN

(3) UNEP

(4) WWF

Answer (2)

133 The largest tiger reserve in India is

(1) Nagarhole

(2) Valmiki

(3) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

(4) Periyar

Answer (3)

134 The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocolwas decided at

(1) Cancun

(2) Durban

(3) Bali

(4) Doha

Answer (4)

135 Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize field ecosystem?

(1) Lion

(2) Grasshopper

(3) Wolf

(4) Phytoplankton

Answer (2)

136 The characteristics of class Reptilia are:

(1) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external ears

(2) Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca

(3) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy

(4) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales

Answer (1)

137 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristics and the taxon?

Animal Characteristic Taxon
(1) Duckbilled platypus Oviparous Mammalian
(2) Milipede Ventral nerve cord Arachnida
(3) Sea Anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria
(4) Silverfish Pectoral and Pelvic fins Chordata

Answer (1)

138 Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means?

(1) Ctenophora

(2) Cnidaria

(3) Porifera

(4) Protozoa

Answer (1)

139 Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays by

(1) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from cyclindrical bodies

(2) Gill slits are ventrally placed

(3) Head and trunk are widened considerably

(4) Distinct demarcation between body and tail

Answer (1)

140 Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location

(1) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and closely attached with the bones of the limbs

(2) Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the walls of the heart

(3) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart

(4) Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends, attachedwith the bones of the ribs

Answer (1)

141 Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches

(1) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight

(2) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea

(3) Males bear short anal styles not present in females

(4) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nervecord and ten pairs of ganglion

Answer (3)

142 Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the organelle ‘A’ in the diagram

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum-synthesis of lipids

(2) Mitochondria-produce cellular energy in the form of ATP

(3) Golgi body-provides packaging material

(4) Lysosomes – secrete hydrolytic enzymes

Answer (2)

143 Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacterium?

(1) It allows the bacterium to attach to the surface

(2) It protects the bacterium from desiccation

(3) It provides means of locomotion

(4) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s immune system

Answer (4)

144 Which of the following statements about enzymes is wrong?

(1) Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature for maximum activity

(2) Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures

(3) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are lipids also

(4) Enzymes are highly specific

Answer (3)

145 The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide portion of a protein with parts labelled A-D. Which one of the following option is correct?

(1) A is the sulphur containing amino acid – methionine

(2) D is the acidic amino acid – glutamic acid

(3) C is an aromatic amino acid – tryptophan

(4) A is the C – terminal amino acid and D is N terminal amino acid

Answer (2)

146 A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which stage is it and what are its characteristics?

(1) Late prophase – chromosomes move to spindle equator

(2) Metaphase – spindle fibres attached to kinetochores, centromeres split and chromatidsseparate

(3) Metaphase – chromosomes moved to spindle equator chromosomes made up of two sister chromatids

(4) Anaphase – centromeres split and chromatids separate and start moving away

Answer (3)

147 A healthy person eats the following diet – 5 gm raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get?

(1) 144

(2) 126

(3) 164

(4) 112

Answer (1)

148 Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the alimentary canal?

(1) Salivary maltase → carboxy peptidase → trypsinogen

(2) Pancreatic amylase → salivary amylase → lipases

(3) Disaccharidase like maltase → lipases → nucleases

(4) Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase → disaccharidases

Answer (4)

149 Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air/O2 during respiration in an adult male Periplaneta americana as it enters the animal body?

(1) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues

(2) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells

(3) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells

(4) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells

Answer (2)

150 The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.

Blood Cell Characteristics
(1) Monocyte Life span 3 days, produce antibodies
(2) Basophil Secrete serotonin, inflammatory response
(3) B-lymphocyte Form about 20% of blood cells involved in immuneresponse
(4) Neutrophil Most abundant blood cell, phagocytic

Answer (2)

151 Figure shows blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Select the option which gives correct identification of label and functions of the part:

(1) A – Artery – thick walled and blood flows evenly

(2) B – Capillary – thin without muscle layers and wall two cell thick

(3) C – Vein – thin walled and blood flows in jerks/spurts

(4) D – Pulmonary vein – takes oxygenated blood to heart PO2 = 95 mmHg

Answer (4)

152 Select the option which shows correct matching of animal with excretory organs and excretory product

Animal Excretory organs Excretory product
(1) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid
(2) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial tubes Ammonia
(3) Salamander Kidney Urea
(4) Peacock Kidney Urea

Answer (3)

153 Select the correct statement with respect to disorders of muscles in humans

(1) Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles causes muscle dystrophy

(2) Failure of neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis can prevent normalswallowing

(3) Accumulation of urea and creatine in the joints cause their inflammation

(4) An overdose of vitamin D causes osteoporosis

Answer (2)

154 During muscle contraction in humans the

(1) Actin filaments shorten

(2) Sarcomere does not shorten

(3) A band remain same

(4) A, H and I bands shorten

Answer (3)

155 A sagittal section of human-brain is shown here. Identify at least two labels from A-D.

(1) A – Cerebral hemispheresB – Cerebellum

(2) C – Mid brainD – Cerebellum

(3) A – CerebrumC – Pons

(4) B – Corpus callosum

D – Medulla

Answer

(3)

156 The figure shows an axon terminal and synapse.Select the option giving correct identifications oftables A-D(1) A – Axon terminalB – Serotonin complex(2) A – Action potentialC – Neurotransmitter(3) B – NeurotransmitterD – Receptor capsules(4) C – Receptor

D – Synaptic vesicles

Answer (4)

157 Which of the following represents the action of insulin?

(1) Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of glycogen

(2) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glucagon production

(3) Decreases blood glucose levels of forming glycogen

(4) Increases blood glucose level by promoting cellular uptake of glucose

Answer (3)

158 Norepinephrine:

(a) Is released by sympathetic fibres
(b) Is released by parasympathetic fibres(c) Increases the heart rate(d) Decreases blood pressureWhich of the above said statements are correct?

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

Answer (2)

159 The figure shows a section of human ovary. Selectthe option which gives the correct identification ofA and B with function/characteristic

(1) A – Primary oocyte – it is the prophase – I ofthe meiotic division

(2) B – Corpus luteum – secretes progesterone

(3) A – Tertiary follicle – forms Graafian follicle

(4) B – Corpus luteum – secretes estrogen

Answer (2)

160 Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function

Endocrinegland Hormone Function
(1) Ovary FSH stimulates follicular development and the secretion of estrogens.
(2) Placenta estrogen initiates secretion of the milk.
(3) Corpus luteum estrogen essential for maintenance of endometerium.
(4) Leydig cells androgen initiates the production of sperms.

Answer (4)

161 The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers releaseof

(1) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary

(2) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary

(3) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) fromplacenta

(4) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta

Answer (1)

162 One of the following is not a method of contraception – which one?

(1) Tubectomy

(2) Condoms

(3) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin

(4) Lippes loop

Answer (3)

163 Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?

(1) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little

(2) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease

(3) Haemophilia is one of the STD

(4) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD

Answer (1)

164 The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is

(1) Zygote

(2) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage

(3) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage

(4) Morula

Answer (4)

165 Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?

(1) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait

(2) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information

(3) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive

(4) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome

Answer (2)

166 In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex-determination in humans

(1) Due to some defect in the women

(2) Due to some defect like aspermia in man

(3) Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg

(4) Due to the genetic make up of the egg

Answer (3)

167 Down’s syndrome in humans is due to

(1) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes

(2) Three ‘X’ chromosomes

(3) Three copies of chromosome 21

(4) Monosomy

Answer (3)

168 The figure gives an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A, B and C.

(1) A – Francis CrickB – translationC – transcription

(2) A – Maurice WilkinsB – transcriptionC – translation

(3) A – James WatsonB – replicationC – extension

(4) A – Erwin Chargaff

B – translation

C – replication

Answer (1)

169 In an inducible operon, the genes are

(1) Always expressed

(2) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them “on”

(3) Usually expressed unless a signal turns them “off”

(4) Never expressed

Answer (2)

170 The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a finch food?

(1) Seeds

(2) Carrion

(3) Insects

(4) Tree buds

Answer (2)

171 Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological era?

(1) Devonion

(2) Coenozoic

(3) Jurassic

(4) Mesozoic

Answer (4)

172 Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body

(1) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs

(2) Muscles of the legs

(3) Blood vessels of the thigh region

(4) Skin between the fingers

Answer (1)

173 Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?

(1) Opium

(2) Caffeine

(3) Morphine

(4) Lysergic acid diethylamide

Answer (4)

174 Tissue culture technique can produce infinite number of new plants from a small parental tissue. The economic importance of the technique is in raising

(1) Variants through picking up somaclonal variations

(2) Genetically uniform population identical to the original parent

(3) Homozygous diploid plants

(4) Development of new species

Answer (2)

175 Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is

(1) Trichoderma sp.

(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(3) Bacillus thuringiensis

(4) Streptococcus sp.

Answer (3)

176 The age pyramid with broad base indicates

(1) High percentage of young individuals

(2) High percentage of old individuals

(3) Low percentage of young individuals

(4) A stable population

Answer (1)

177 When man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which have eaten small plants, the producer in the chain is

(1) Zooplankton

(2) Small plants

(3) Fish

(4) Man

Answer (2)

178 Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?

(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs

(2) Development of adhesive organs

(3) Loss of digestive organs

(4) Loss of reproductive capacityAnswer (4)

179 Climate of the world is threatened by

(1) Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen

(2) Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen

(3) Increasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide

(4) Decreasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide

Answer (3)

180 Which one of the following is not correct as regards the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5 micro meters or less?

(1) It can be inhaled into the lungs

(2) It can cause respiratory problems

(3) It can directly enter into our circulatory system

(4) It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs

Answer (3)

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